All of the info about why added sugar is unhealthy compared to fruits seems to be that the sugar in fruit comes with fibre and nutrients that offset the negative health impacts of sugar to a degree by delaying its absorption and preventing a blood sugar spike. However, by this reasoning alone, wouldn't it be possible to infer that if added sugar was paired with the same amount of fibre and nutrients, its effects could be mitigated in the same way as they are in fruit? Well I haven't found any evidence either supporting or negating this idea or anyone even talking about that question specifically aside from a few other people asking the same thing, and random people replying without citing any evidence. For example someone suggested that indeed taking this approach may work a little bit, but it still won't be as healthy as eating fruit due to the "fibre-infused food matrix" of fruit or that sugar that is found naturally in fruits is "complexed" with fiber that slows down the absorption more, whereas the added sugar is more freely available to absorb quickly because it's separate from the fibre even if eaten together with it (though the separate fibre will still do some of the same job but not as well)? "It can slow the absorption of sugar slightly but won't make a huge difference. Sugar from wholefruit and veg will always be processed differently due to the food matrix the sugars contained in that must be vroken down resulting in a slow and gradual release, when u eat added sugar but just have some fiber all that sugar is still there readily available to absorb. Overall it would be better to just stick to fruit and eat mixed macro meals with healthy unsaturated fats and proteins" Well if possible I would like to see some scientific evidence/studies talking specifically about the difference on the body between consuming whole fruits containing their natural sugar and fibre + nutrients, compared to consuming added sugar along with foods containing fibre and nutrients in equivalent amounts (such as bircher muesli with added palm sugar, or another example if necessary for the sake of equalizing the fibre+nutrients content), and ideally health outcome data showing there is actually a difference between these... And just more information in general about the idea of naturally occurring sugar and fibre contained together in a single food matrix being different/more healthy than added sugar taken together with separate fibre foods. Thanks

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It's a classic techno song that might be described as euro trance. I think I've heard the song but I'm asking for a friend. It might be an instance of the Mandela effect because the song can't seem to be found anywhere.

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It's a classic techno song that might be described as EuroTrance. I think I've heard the song but I'm asking for a friend. It's possible it might be an instance of the Mandela effect because the song can't be found anywhere.

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Here is the fallacy I'm describing: Someone defends their own actions, or someone else's actions, as acceptable/justified or necessary, on the basis that those actions might be necessary or justified in certain circumstances, referencing other individuals or circumstances for which it might be necessary or justified, despite their own circumstances/the circumstances in question not having the same elements that would require it or justify it. For example, someone defends the actions of someone who murdered another person unnecessarily because they disliked them (e.g.), using the argument that there might be people who need to kill in self-defense or in a survival situation for whom it might be justified, despite that not applying to the situation in question. I'll attempt to write the form of the fallacy here: X is justified in Y case. Someone does X in Z case. X is justified in Z case because X would be justified in Y case. It's a fallacy because: What is true of Y case doesn't necessarily apply to Z case; the elements/circumstances of Y case that would make X justified may not be present in Z case, and therefore even if X is justified in Y case it wouldn't automatically be justified in Z case as a consequence.

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I'm of the view that this is a semantic question where we have a word, "pile", that describes a general amount but doesn't have a specified quantity to it, and so the only way we can determine the amount of units required to constitute a pile at the bare minimum, is through public consensus on the most commonly shared idea we generally have when we think of a pile. I also think it's possible for there to be a "range of graduation" between a non-pile and a pile, so for example "a non-pile becomes a pile somewhere between x grains and x grains" (depending on what most people think this range is), and if a given number of grains falls below this range, it would necessarily be only a minority of people that would still accept it to be a pile. So I plan to count the answers here and see if we can come to some kind of consensus or at least most common or average opinion. For sake of not skewing the results, I won't suggest my opinion on what I think the number or range of grains is upon which a non-pile becomes a pile. What do you think it is?

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    By playing beatbox music and making everyone stay away from me while I grew corn and ate it slowly in front of them while they watched me cautiously from a distance.

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  • Someone told me Thoth was a messenger god but I and everyone else are too dumb to understand what his message was.

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    For example, if you said that someone had been fooled by something, would they take offense and think you're calling them a fool or foolish? What if you say someone's been "played for a fool"?

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    Why is this?
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    I saw something speculating that Americans still age faster than other countries due to all the hormones they consume in animal products.

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  • I feel like often people ask me "Oh yea? Name some examples." and the burden is on me to prove something by providing representative examples. But often it's so overwhelming how many examples there are for something that I feel obligated then to either list everything, or try extra hard to find good examples, and even then I feel like I could be misrepresenting the case by not providing enough examples. Basically I feel like I would have to give many, many examples, or none at all, otherwise anything in the middle could be non-representative of the true trend. Ironically, now you will want me to give examples of situations that I'm talking about. But for this I will provide 2 examples and rest on good faith that you will believe me (given the context of this post) that this happens much more often than I care to provide examples for. So one example is when you are attempting to prove to someone that a certain thing is scientifically proven or is agreed upon as scientific consensus. You can look to the generally agreed hierarchy of evidence and provide what it considers to be high-quality evidence, such as meta analyses and systematic reviews, but even then there can be disagreement between specific reports, and there can be outliers that disagree with the overall most common trends or findings. So the only way to really prove something is to provide many, many different instances of scientific evidence to the point where the other person would be unable to find the same level or amount of evidence to the contrary by virtue of the fact that it doesn't exist to the same overwhelming degree, essentially proving the scientific fact. But again, this takes either an enormous amount of high quality evidence from various different sources, or nothing at all and simply an assertion that something is in fact scientifically proven or agreed upon as scientific consensus, because anything else in the middle could misrepresent the case and make it seem less substantiated than it actually is. It's either "all or nothing". And now I'll provide a specific anecdote about someone who argued that there are no decent stories with a female main protagonist. I am so sure and believe it to be so obvious that there is an extensive history of great female main protagonists and female-driven stories, in all forms of storytelling, that I found this an overwhelming task to attempt to prove when the person asked for specific examples. How can I make the case of the wealth of good stories with female main characters without providing an exhaustive (or highly numerous) list? Even if I pick a few great examples, the person can always make the objection that "Those are an exception, and they don't represent the overall trend." and I risk misrepresenting that trend if the examples chosen aren't the best ones available, too. How can you possibly prove something like that without a very long and well-thought out and extensively researched list? Again, it seems like it's either attempt such a daunting task, or don't engage with the request for examples at all and just assert the claim that there are many examples, without specifying any to avoid the risk of taking on the burden of proving it and possibly misrepresenting the trend. I hope this made any sense at all.

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    Why did Jadis threaten Rick and Michonne that she would have them killed if they tried to escape? Why does she not want them to escape/why does she care if they leave? Would them escaping ruin her deal with the CRM leading to them kicking her out (but they don't let people leave so that doesn't make sense)? Or would she be actually worried that them going to Alexandria would bring the CRM there to attack the community and that would endanger her ex boyfriend Gabriel Stokes? What is her reasoning?

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    Extras/other people in the background are acceptable to meet the criteria but ideally with no human/entity on the screen at all that isn't played by the same actor. Movies like 'Men', 'Moon' or 'The Nutty Professor' don't meet this criteria for example, due to the exceptions of characters played by other actors. And it has to be somewhat mainstream and not a low budget student film or something. Edit: I also meant that they play multiple characters...

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    Justifying one thing because it's a necessary component of another *unnecessary* thing... what logical fallacy is that?
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    And I'll paste my other example here:

    Another example might involve arguing that the disposal of hazardous waste is necessary because it's a byproduct of a particular manufacturing process, while ignoring the question of whether that manufacturing process itself is essential or necessary. This fallacy occurs when one justifies an undesirable or harmful element as a necessary component of a larger practice or system without questioning the necessity of the entire system or practice.

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  • Justifying one thing because it's a necessary component of another *unnecessary* thing... what logical fallacy is that?
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    Thanks, that's almost what I mean, but I might modify your examples slightly. They're good examples to work from lol (I'm pretty bad at coming up with scenarios that fit what I'm talking about). Sorry if this sounds kind of crazy:

    Jess wants to draw a picture of a bird. For this, since Jess is completely broke and homeless, she would need to rob an art store to get art supplies. (Let's say for sake of example that there is genuinely no other way for her to obtain art supplies to draw the picture). Jess justifies this act of robbing the store in order to draw her bird picture because there's no other way she can make the picture otherwise. She makes the claim that robbing the art store is necessary in absolute terms, while overlooking or ignoring the fact that drawing the picture of the bird isn't necessary in the first place (even though she might desire to draw it, she doesn't need to, and therefore doesn't need to rob the art store, either).

    Or...

    When Alan plays tennis, his knee hurts. Alan has a strange condition that his knee only hurts after he plays tennis. When his knee hurts, he has to put ice on it, which requires an expensive refrigerator with an ice machine since that's the only way he can possibly get a good supply of ice in his situation (hypothetically). Alan then decides to buy the expensive refrigerator with stolen money from his grandma, and claims that it's an absolute requirement for him to, without considering the fact that he doesn't actually need to play tennis, though he might want to.

    In both cases, someone is claiming that something (an action, state, etc) is necessary overall, because it's part of a larger goal/endeavour; without addressing the reality that it would only be necessary as a component of that larger goal that it would be in service of, if that larger goal was necessary, which in fact it isn't (and therefore neither are any components that would be required to achieve it).

    I hope this makes sense :)

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    It's an example which demonstrates the concept since in both cases, the overall process/system is unnecessary. Neither dairy farming nor killing animals for meat is necessary. It's not shifting the argument to say that the killing isn't necessary in the first place, that simply is the main point that the fallacy ignores.

    With regard to dairy farming, it's not more profitable to raise, house a male calf who won't produce milk in their life, and feed them until adulthood (still only a few years old when they can live until 20-25) and kill them for beef. In most cases male calves get killed for veal, though they can simply be killed immediately and discarded, while some are raised until 1.5-2 years and killed for beef. Most female calves usually become dairy cows and then ultimately beef cows as well at 4-6 years old.

    On a mass scale of dairy production, the killing of cattle for veal and beef is absolutely necessary. And yet, these components are part of an overall unnecessary system that is dairy production. Of course it's cruel in a variety of other ways too, but the primary use of the fallacy is assuming that we need to eat/utilise veal and beef due to them being necessary for dairy production, when dairy itself is unnecessary.

    I love how everyone jumped on the example I used to defend these cruel practices instead of understanding how they were an example of the fallacy I was describing. And are trying to claim they're not an example of the fallacy when they clearly are. Shows the world we live in...

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  • Will people respond better if you say you're teetotal, or straight edge?
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    Right, like smoking in front of a baby (and exposing them to second-hand smoke). I guess that's a good example. But that's more to do with the way you're going about doing the drugs, rather than the drug use itself as an inherent component, I suppose.

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  • Justifying one thing because it's a necessary component of another *unnecessary* thing... what logical fallacy is that?
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    I appreciate your thoughts! And "nerd sniped" is a great term 😂 I agree, I think there may not be a specific name for this fallacy (though it could be described as somewhat of a false requirement or false necessity fallacy), nor is it widely recognised in logic literature (as is often the case; some might call it a "made-up fallacy" but indeed a verifiable one), but it probably falls under the more general fallacies of "false dilemma/false dichotomy", as well as "fallacy of composition":

    "Fallacy of composition occurs when someone assumes that what's true for part of something must also be true for the whole or that if one thing is a necessary component of another thing, both must be necessary, even if it's not the case. In essence, it assumes that the properties of the parts apply to the whole."

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  • Will people respond better if you say you're teetotal, or straight edge?
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    Oh, absolutely. I have no problem with other people doing recreational drugs. I see it as entirely their choice as it only really affects them personally. I don't think it's immoral or "sinful" (whatever that really means) or whatever.

    And I think most people do respect that. I do appreciate these responses that make it clear that we should respect if someone either does or doesn't want to consume recreational drugs.

    But I really was just looking for a term to explain abstinence of recreational drugs to people who I know won't judge or care, but without the baggage or misunderstandings that may come with saying "sober" (possible assumption: former/recovering alcoholic/addict), "teetotal" (possible misunderstanding: doesn't use alcohol, might still be fine with other recreational drugs), or "straight edge" (possible misunderstanding: not only doesn't consume drugs, but also is into the punk music scene).

    After gathering data, the best term I could come up with is quite a simple one: "drug-free". To be clear, we could say "recreational drug-free", though that's rather wordy and the meaning of "recreational drugs" is often understood by just saying "drugs" anyway.

    I know you didn't ask but I just thought I'd say this anyway lol.

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    Ok I have another example.

    Another example might involve arguing that the disposal of hazardous waste is necessary because it's a byproduct of a particular manufacturing process, while ignoring the question of whether that manufacturing process itself is essential or necessary. This fallacy occurs when one justifies an undesirable or harmful element as a necessary component of a larger practice or system without questioning the necessity of the entire system or practice.

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  • Justifying one thing because it's a necessary component of another *unnecessary* thing... what logical fallacy is that?
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    How is it not a false dichotomy? It erroneously forces us to choose between 2 options, when in actual fact there is a third option.

    And, I'm really not. I was asked for an example/elaboration of how the fallacy might be used, and that was my best example. However it can likely apply to other situations too. If you recall, I initially just asked for what the fallacy might be called, without specifying any examples until I was asked for one.

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    One I can think of is false dilemma/false dichotomy (a false premise that erroneously limits what options are available, and forces us to choose between 2 options (either cause unnecessary harm and waste the full usefulness of the harm, or cause unnecessary harm and maximise its usefulness) when there is a third option to not cause the unnecessary harm in the first place.

    However that's more general and I was looking for something more specific that refers to assuming something is necessary because it's an unavoidable component of another thing which itself is unnecessary.

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  • Justifying one thing because it's a necessary component of another *unnecessary* thing... what logical fallacy is that?
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    I can provide an example, but you might hate me for it. I swear this is just to explain what I mean by this fallacy because I can't think of another example right now.

    Justifying killing/using an animal for its skin/hide (e.g. leather or fur), because you're already killing the animal for its flesh, when in actual fact the killing of the animal doesn't need to take place at all (hypothetically).

    Or justifying the killing of calves for veal as a necessary component of dairy production, when in fact dairy production isn't necessary, either.

    I hope that makes sense

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    Or, maybe both pronouncers (the "jiff" gang and the "giff" crowd) will team up against me for saying that. At least we'll have harmony for most people if that's the case, and I'll be a sacrifice to keep the peace.

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  • Or just "I don't do drugs", or "I don't do recreational drugs"? Or "I don't smoke weed" and "I don't drink alcohol" when they come up, separately? I wouldn't generally say it at all unless I'm in a situation where I'm offered recreational drugs such as cannabis or alcohol. My understanding is the term 'straight edge' might be more well known than 'teetotal', but neither are completely known by everyone. I take straight edge to mean not doing any recreational drugs. However I read that straight edge can have punk culture connotations that some people might maintain are part of it. Like I might meet a punk straight edger who claims I'm not really straight edge unless I have connections to the punk scene. They also apparently often claim you need to be vegan to be straight edge, I am vegan though coincidentally but not for reasons relating to straight edge culture. Teetotal I believe most often means abstinence from simply alcohol, but can be used to mean abstaining from all recreational drugs (I think). It may be more well known as just not drinking alcohol. For example teetotallers often still smoke weed. Apologies if I misrepresented any of these terms.

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    I don't mean IPA symbols (which I can't read) but rather characters from a normal alphabet being used to phoneticise a word, e.g. excerpt is pronounced "[EK] + [SURPT]". What would this be called? Letter-based phoneticisation?

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    How to Sell Drugs Online (Fast)

    The show feels like a mix of 'Mr. Robot', 'You', and 'Breaking Bad'. Excellent series, too bad not enough people know about it. Incredibly unique and well done. From ep 1 it's great. I watched the whole 3 seasons and am now waiting for the 4th to come out.

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    Is it possible to view a post that was deleted by mods?

    I made a post on asklemmy @ lemmy.ml and it was deleted by mods apparently due to "super toxic comments" that users made. I didn't get a chance to view all the comments and still would like to. However, using this backlog: https://lemmy.ml/modlog?page=1&userId=2461030 , https://lemmy.ml/post/3809854 It says that the post couldn't be found. Not sure if that's just a temporary server issue or it's gone completely. Is there a way to view posts that were deleted by mods (even if you made the post yourself)?![](https://lemmy.world/pictrs/image/3452df9c-c131-4559-b5e5-d2b912c083e7.jpeg)

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    For example, could alternative terms like "carbon reducing" and "carbon increasing" make it more clear and avoid misinterpreting which means which?

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    Is it offensive to say someone 'became' gay?

    From what I've read, gay people were born with the predisposition to eventually find out they're gay (usually), and gay people don't 'become' gay. They might come out or start engaging in related behaviours. Watching a Quebec series from 2014 called Serie Noire, one of the characters complains that his girlfriend has become a lesbian, after he finds out she's cheating on him with a woman. He remarks multiple times about how he's distraught that she has become a lesbian and it's probably played for comedic effect. Of course the issue shouldn't be that she's a lesbian (or bisexual) but rather that she's cheating on him and isn't interested in him, but he also calls it "becoming" a lesbian, describing it as a somewhat random event/decision rather than a reveal about his partner. Just wondering, would this be considered offensive today? Thanks

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